Posted on 6 August 2015 by Anton Alipov

Categories: Art, History

"Valden" Rules: Yet Another Look at Voynich f116v, line 3

In my extensive earlier post on f116v I tried, among other things, to transliterate the famous and enigmatic "valden ubren" - with little effort though (I admit!) and even less success.

It suddenly occurred to me that "valden" might be a word form of "walden", i.e. "v" might just have been used interchangeably with "w". Of course I consulted Lexer at once, and "walden" turned to be the same as "walten", which still stands in modern German for "to reign, to rule, to have power over something".

In the context of the "spell hypothesis" this seems better than everything else proposed, does not it?

Why in infinitive (or is it 3rd person plural?) and what is "ubren"? I do not know. As always, feedback from MHD/FNHD experts is most welcome (where are they all?)

---
---

View/add comments



Add your comment (preview then submit):


 
---

---